Did Jesus Speak With Other Tongues?

©2012 Dr. Irene Bonney Faulkes DD

Wherever I have ministered I have preached quite deep and fundamental truths of the gospel as revealed to Paul in particular.  For those who question whether Jesus spoke in other tongues, I will say, "No, Jesus would not have spoken in tongues."  I did hear a preacher say (about fifty years ago) that He did when in actuality He was speaking Aramaic.  Even then, as now, many fail to understand the position Jesus held while on this earth.

The reasons Jesus would not have spoken in tongues  and did not are: -

He received the Spirit without measure and was and is the Reservoir of the Holy Spirit. The Spirit as given under the New Covenant is a different proposition from what occurred under the Old.  Under the latter, the Holy Spirit from God, called also in 1 Peter 1:11, “the Spirit of Christ”, indicates that Christ as One of the Trinity also dispensed the Spirit.  Indeed going further, we could say that the Spirit of God, and of the Father was also the Spirit of Christ, as He spoke through the prophets.  Evidently this would also have been the case in creation as Colossians 1:16,17 reveals the part Christ played in that.  These verses read, "For in him all things in heaven and on earth were created, things visible and invisible whether thrones or dominions or rulers or powers, all things have been created through him and in him.  He himself is before all things, and in him all things hold together".   It is interesting that “God” in Genesis 1:1 is really “Elohim”, in plural form.  This indicates at the beginning of the Bible, that it was the Trinity acting in creation.  

Under the New Covenant, regarding Christ, as in Hebrews 7:16,17 the writer does say He has become a priest “by virtue of a power arising from an indestructible life …You are a priest for ever..”. This indicates Him as the “I Am”, as He said in John 8:58, “Before Abraham was, I Am”.   As the Great High Priest, in the Old Testament and in the New, He on earth was in quite a different position before God from that occupied by believers, past and present.

His redemptive act on the cross, not only as far as we are concerned but in relation to God was never for Himself as He did not become a “sinner” participating in acts of sin or "sin" as stated by Copeland and Word of Faith Ministries.  He was as the Lamb slain before the foundation of the world, pure, holy, spotless and a perfect sacrifice for our sin.

Another feature of an answer to the question often posed is that Jesus came as Prophet to the Jewish nation.  He was born under the Law and came under the Law, Galatians 4:4.  He indeed fulfilled the Law, for us, Hebrews 4:15, that we have a High Priest, Jesus Christ, "who in every respect has been tested as we are, yet without sin".  We are not under Law but under grace, Romans 6:14.  Christ came to a different era from ours.  He came under Law whereas we are under grace as quoted.  Under Law, the Holy Spirit was not given as did happen on the Day of Pentecost.  Before that time, no one, including Jesus, could have had this speaking in other tongues.   Of course, this event also was a fulfillment of the Feast of Pentecost. The type, this Feast, still occurred before then as a command from God, because Jesus was in the Temple for certain Feasts.  The fulfillment did not occur before Acts 2:4 so Jesus would never have spoken in tongues, a major feature of the baptism with the Spirit.

When the Holy Spirit descended upon Him at His baptism, the reason was not to give “power, authority, the miracle itself” as promised to us in Acts 1:8.   In fact, it was not the “Promise of the Father” as given to believers by Jesus in Acts 1:4. This promise is given by Jesus Christ and was not to be something that God would do directly for the believer as happened with Jesus.    He gave it after His resurrection from the dead.  This promise that was promised to all believers has never been rescinded.

Peter says this in Acts 2:32,33, “Jesus Christ … being therefore exalted by the right hand of God, and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, He has poured out this that you both see and hear”. Jesus Christ was never before this time in a position to either have received this promise from the Father, for the sole purpose of pouring out, and not for He Himself even as the God-Man on earth.  We remember that even though not manifesting His Deity as He had in heaven, on earth, He was still Deity. At the time of baptism, as Deity, the Holy Spirit would have joined Himself to the Deity of Christ. He could never have filled His manhood in total. In any case, the Spirit was always in Jesus the Man, in some mysterious way, enabling and empowering Him. We see this from Luke and Mark, even John at the wedding in Cana.

Speaking in tongues accompanies the baptism with the Spirit as given by Jesus and as not given by the Father. Its origin is the Father but as we noted above, He gave it to Jesus to pour out, in His exaltation.

Jesus said in John 16:7 that He would send “another Comforter”, the Holy Spirit. Jesus Himself comforted His disciples and those who could hear. He did not need another Comforter. He was One Himself. The other Comforter was sent down from heaven on the Day of Pentecost to take the place on earth of Jesus Christ who had ascended. The immediate result for the one hundred and twenty disciples was that they spoke in other tongues. This should not be taken to mean they were preaching to the people. Acts 2:11, the people said “We do hear them speak in other tongues”. That is not an appropriate reference to any persons’ preaching and how could they all be preaching at once? Then again, it would have been impossible for the people to concentrate on a preached sermon.  That verse 11 continues with “the wonderful works of God” and it is as Weymouth translates, “about the majesty of God”, Moffat reads “talking of the triumphs of God” while Phillips says it as “speaking of the magnificence of God”. They were speaking in some languages that some people heard, of the mysteries of heaven.  In this case, they spoke of the glories of what God had accomplished through Christ in salvation. He, it is, this Holy Spirit, who indwells us at salvation and who flows out from within in the speaking of other tongues, or languages, as occurs in the baptism with the Spirit.

Another thing is that as in 1 Corinthians 14:2-4, the Holy Spirit, as we pray in other tongues, enables us to edify ourselves. We are enabled to speak mysteries by the Spirit. We talk directly to God. In Romans 8:26, as we pray in other tongues, the Holy Spirit intercedes through us to the Father. Jesus did not need any of this. He even said in John 3:12 that He knew, while on earth, heavenly things – as the Son and not by the Spirit. He also said in verse 13, “No one has ascended into heaven except the One who descended from heaven, the Son of Man”. This evidences the facts that the Son of Man, as Deity, had access even then to heaven itself. In John 10:38 He said that "the father is in me and I am in the Father".  He and His Father “are One”, John 10:30.   He did not need to speak in tongues. The Father showed Him all things. He spoke and did as the Father directed. What a Wonderful Being, is this Son of Man and Son of God! While on earth, in some translations, as Deity He kept ascending to heaven. Our mortal minds can never really understand how.

Here is something else. Isaiah 28 is quoted by Paul in 1 Cor. 14,21,22, “By people of strange tongues and by the lips of foreigners I will speak to this people”. Jesus Himself was never classed as one of these people. He never became one of us in that regard. The purpose of His manhood was as in Hebrews 2:17, “Therefore he had to become like his brothers and sisters in every respect, so that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make a sacrifice of atonement for the sins of the people”. He became like us, taking on our sinful flesh (without any innate sin in Him or any taint or tendency). We believe in Christ and are born again. Jesus was never born again. Romans 8:2 says, “For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus has set you free from the law of sin and death”. When Jesus was on earth, there was no one who experienced this verse as we now do. The people who believed in Him then, had not received that experience and therefore could never have qualified for the baptism with the Spirit as in Acts 2:4. Ephesians 1:14, contrary to what many say, relates to this experience, because it says “after you believed you were sealed with the Holy Spirit of promise”.

Finally, Jude 20 commands believers in Christ (of whom Jesus was never one, obviously) to “Build yourselves up on your most holy faith; pray in the Holy Spirit” and we know from Paul this means praying in other tongues.

The baptism with the Spirit, speaking in other tongues, is actually an extension of the salvation process, which Jesus did not require and never received. The Holy Spirit comes into believers at the time of the new birth, Titus 3:5, He saved us “through the water of rebirth and renewal by the Holy Spirit” and as in Romans 8:9 “But you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, since the Spirit of God dwells in you.  Anyone who does not have the Spirit of Christ, does not belong to Him”.  After the born again experience there should occur and sadly often does not, what Jesus spoke about in John 7:38,39, “out from his innermost being (from the spirit, born again), will flow rivers of living water”. The Holy Spirit is already in the believer but should then be allowed to “flow out” in the baptism with the Holy spirit, speaking in tongues being “the miracle itself” (translation of “dynamos”, Acts 1:8).

Rev. Irene & Peter Faulkes
3 Kingfisher Drive
River Heads, Queensland,

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